This article is about exposing and refuting a Muslim’s assertion that the Trinity is not biblical. You can find the original of his articlein here.

Jesus-is-muslim.net:

The Trinity is the main Christian belief which is the belief in Father, Son and Holy Spirit one God. In this section, I will try to highlight on it, and see if it is really from God or not.

Jesus (Peace be upon him), as he never told that he is God,

My answer:

__Yes, Jesus never directly said that He is God; but He spoke things that only God can utter about Himself. Here are few of them:

God is the first and last (Isaiah 44:6), Jesus claimed to be the first and the last (Revelation 1:17-18)

God vowed to never share His glory with others (Isaiah 42:8), yet Jesus claimed to have shared the same glory with God (John17:5)

Jesus is called God, by the Father (Hebrews 1:8)

God is the Lord of Sabbath; Jesus claimed to be the Lord of Sabbath (Matthew 12:8)

I can go on and on, but I think these are enough for now.

Jesus-is-muslim.net said:

And as he told that the Father is the only God, as I mentioned before,

My answer:

__The Father is the only God? Before quoting the context of this passage, I have to let you know that not only you have no understanding of the Bible but you definitely have no knowledge of the Qur’an as well. God is father to no one according to the Qur’an. How can you even dare mentioning God as the Father? This is a clear proof that Jesus was/is not a Muslim; otherwise He wouldn’t have called God His Father.

I also want you to be consistent, now that you use the Bible to prove your point, don’t you dare saying it is corrupt.

Now the context of the verse you used:

Jesus said these things, and lifting up his eyes to heaven, he said, “Father, the time has come. Glorify your Son, that your Son may also glorify you; even as you gave him authority over all flesh, he will give eternal life to all whom you have given him. This is eternal life, that they should know you, the only true God, and him whom you sent, Jesus Christ. I glorified you on the earth. I have accomplished the work which you have given me to do. Now, Father, glorify me with your own self with the glory which I HAD with you before the world existed. John17:1-5

This is the whole verse in context, but you only picked and chose v.3 “This is eternal life, that they should know you, the only true God, and him whom you sent, Jesus Christ.

V.1 Jesus calls Himself, the Son of God, which the Qur’an denies (Quran 9:29-30)

V.2, just the previous verse says this: even as you gave him authority over all flesh, he (the Son) will give eternal life to all whom you have given him.”

What kind of a mere creature can give eternal life? Yet Jesus said He will give eternal life.

And in v.5, Jesus went on and said, Now, Father, glorify me with your own self WITH THE GLORY which I HAD WITH YOU before the world existed.

Here, Jesus claimed to have been WITH the Father, BEFORE the creation. What kind of a mere creature can say such a thing?

This brings us to your next distortion about the Trinity.

You said:

He didn’t say anything concerning the Trinity, there are some scripts used to prove the Trinity, I will try to discuss it in that section:

My answer:

__This John 17:5 shows at least 2 persons of the Trinity, the Son and the Father. This is why He said, Now, Father, glorify me with your own self with the glory which I HAD WITH YOU before the world existed.

Jesus was WITH the Father. You can only say that you are “WITH someone or something” other than yourself. And this verse deitifies Him since He claimed to have been WITH the Father before the Creation.

You said:

The first script used to prove the Trinity is that script:

Gen 1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the birds of the heavens, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

Actually using the plural is not a proof that God is more than one person, for this is commonly used language for glorifying, and this was used concerning others in the Bible:

Ezr 4:17 Then sent the king an answer unto Rehum the chancellor, and to Shimshai the scribe, and to the rest of their companions that dwell in Samaria, and in the rest of the country beyond the River: Peace, and so forth.
Ezr 4:18 The letter which ye sent unto us hath been plainly read before me.
2Ch 10:9 And he said unto them, What counsel give ye, that we may return answer to this people, who have spoken to me, saying, Make the yoke that thy father did put upon us lighter?

My answer:

__Who told you that, Genesis 1:26 was/is the “first” script? (Genesis 1:1 is the first verse of the Bible and the Trinity is already mentioned there, more of that later)

Let me first reply to the two passages you try to use to make your point (Ezra 4:17-18 and 2Chronicles 10:9).

Thank you for showing us that when the word “WE” or “OUR” is used; it is referring to at least two people. Something you probably did not consider, because these examples you alluded to are about people, not just one person. Notice that the person (the king) calling himself as “I” and “me” in these passages also included the people with him, that’s when he used the word “we”.

Allow me showing you my point:

Ezr 4:17 Then sent the king an answer unto Rehum the chancellor, and to Shimshai the scribe, and to the rest of their companions that dwell in Samaria, and in the rest of the country beyond the River: Peace, and so forth.
Ezr 4:18 The letter which ye sent unto us hath been plainly read before me.

Notice 4:17 says, “Then sent the king”, meaning he sent someone else to deliver the letter, he didn’t go by himself.

Then in 4:18, you highlighted, ye sent unto us”, but you forgot (or should I say, deliberately ignore) to highlight the words read before me”. This is a proof that he did not read the letter. It was read before him (Not read by him)! Meaning, there were other people WITH him, namely the one/s who read the letter to him.

Secondly, the word “God” in Genesis 1:26 is the Hebrew, “Elohim”. For us to understand it better, let us look at another rather explicit meaning of Elohim in Deuteronomy 6:4, “Hear, Israel: Yahweh is our God. Yahweh is one.”

Here, Yahweh is the name of God which Muhammad never mentioned. God here is the same Hebrew word “Elohim” used in Genesis 1:26. And the most important one is the meaning of the word “One”.

“One” here, is the Hebrew word “achad”, which is a singular unit, made of several. Literally speaking Deuteronomy 6:4 should be rendered as, “Hear O Israel, Yahweh your God who presents Himself IN PLURAL FORM IS BUT ONE GOD”

Here are some other verses whereby God refers Himself as “our” or “us”, and these are not languages of glorifying as you claim because Hebrew does not have royal plural like “we”, “us” or “our”, like those used in the Qur’an when referring to Allah. Otherwise the entire Bible would have referred to God as “We”, “Us” or “Our” every time He speaks:

Genesis 3:22, 11:7,
3:22 And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of US, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live forever…11:7 Go to, let US go down, and there confound their language, that they may not understand one another’s speech.

Isaiah 6:8, 41:21-24,
6:8 Also I heard the voice of the Lord, saying, Whom shall I (the LORD) send, and who will go for US (the LORD)? Then said I, Here am I; send me…41:21 Produce your cause, saith the LORD; bring forth your strong reasons, saith the King of Jacob. 22 Let them bring them forth, and show US what shall happen: let them show the former things, what they be, that WE may consider them, and know the latter end of them; or declare US things for to come. 23 Show the things that are to come hereafter, that WE may know that ye are gods: yea, do good, or do evil, that WE may be dismayed, and behold it together. 24 Behold, ye are of nothing, and your work of nought: an abomination is he that chooseth you.

Here are other verses whereby God is referred as “they” or “themselves”, though the English Bible translates it as “he” or “himself” (the reason for that, I think, is because English is very poor in vocabulary and the translators did not want to misled people of thinking that these verses promote polytheism),

Genesis 35:7,
He built an altar there and named the place El Bethelbecause there God had revealed himselfto him when he was fleeing from his brother.

The Hebrew of this verse says, “God had revealed themselves”. The verb נִגְלוּ (niglu), translated “revealed himself,” is plural, even though one expects the singular form with the plural of majesty. אֱלֹהִים (’elohim) is here a numerical plural of God.

2 Samuel 7:23,
Who is like your people, Israel, a unique nation on the earth? Their God went to claim a nation for himself and to make a name for himself! You did great and awesome acts for your land, before your people whom you delivered for yourself from the Egyptian empire and its gods.

Again, the verb “went”, here is in plural.

Psalm 58:11,
Then observerswill say, “Yes indeed, the godly are rewarded! Yes indeed, there is a God who judges in the earth!”

Again, the verb “Judge” here is in plural though it refers to One God, meaning David, by the inspiration of God spoke of the trinity of God.

The following is when God’s attributes are used in plural form:

Ecclesiastes 12:1,
So remember your Creator in the days of your youth – before the difficult days come, and the years draw near when you will say, “I have no pleasure in them.

The Hebrew of “your Creator” actually is in plural “your Creators”. See also Job 35:10; Psalm 149:2

Isaiah 54:5,
For your husband is the one who made you – the Lord who commands armies is his name. He is your protector, the Holy One of Israel.He is called “God of the entire earth.

Your husband in Hebrew also is in plural.

Verses that say God is “holy” (Joshua 24:19; Proverbs 9:10, 30:3), another plural.

All these support the doctrine of Trinity, since the Bible clearly states that there is only one God.

You said:

Besides, the verse after it refutes the Trinity:

Gen 1:27 And God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.

This proves that the former verse was used for glorifying, otherwise this will mean that the other two persons went away, and only one person remained which is not the case for the Trinity.

My answer:

__This proves exactly what the Holy Trinity is about, because even though they are three in person, yet they are one God. And even in this verse 27, it is not God who’s talking here, but the author of Genesis (Moses), unlike v.26 where God Himself talks (Please remember, the Bible is not like the Qur’an; so don’t apply your way of reading the Qur’an to the Bible). Moses knew that though God referred to Himself as “us” and “our” in v.26, yet He is one (v.27), thus Moses in v.27 referred to Him as in singular, though God spoke of Himself as in plural. We see that in His explanation in Deuteronomy 6:4 that I already showed above.

There’s something you actually failed to realise when quoting Genesis 1:26, let me point it out for you,

“And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.”

Notice, though God calls Himself “us” and “our” yet the words “image” and “likeness”, are in singular, not plural. This fits the “Three in One” doctrine perfectly.

Let’s further read the context of Genesis 1, shall we?

1 In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth. 2 The earth was formless and empty. Darkness was on the surface of the deep and God’s Spirit was hovering over the surface of the waters. 3 God said, “Let there be light… Genesis 1:1-3

 

The word God here again is Elohim. But now, let’s see something that people (you included) probably overlook when reading these verses:

V.2 says … God’s Spirit was hovering over the surface of the waters.

God’s Spirit is the Holy Spirit.

V.3 says, God SAID…

The “said” here is the Word, which is God Himself (John 1:1), and the word became flesh, that’s Jesus (John 1:14). This is why the Word was called the Creator (John 1:2-3; Hebr. 1:1-3). And Jesus clearly stated that He was there before the world was created (John 17:5; 8:58).

The GOD who said here is the Father, this is why Jesus said He and the Holy Spirit proceed from the Father (John 8:42 “Jesus”, John 15:26 “the Holy Spirit”).

This is a perfect display of the Trinity.

You said:

The second verse used to prove the Trinity:

Mat 3:16 And Jesus when he was baptized, went up straightway from the water: and lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending as a dove, and coming upon him;

I actually don’t understand where is the point in that verse that proves the Trinity, it doesn’t say that the 3 persons are one, all what it says is that they were present with each other for a moment, neither it says that the Son or the Holy Spirit are God.

My answer:

__Again, why do you call it the second? There are dozens of verses in the Old Testament that teach the Trinity.

You actually don’t understand where is the point in that verse that proves the Trinity?

That’s because you’re still spiritually blind! You have no understanding of God’s words (Mark 4:11; 1Corinthians 2:14; 2Timothy 3:7…)

Let’s again quote the whole context because you left out some of the verses:

Matthew 3:16-17,

16 JESUS, when he was baptized, went up directly from the water: and behold, the heavens were opened to him. He saw THE SPIRIT OF GOD descending as a dove, and coming on him. 17 Behold, A VOICE out of the heavens said, “This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well pleased.”

Clearly the voice here is the Father, since He called Jesus, His Son. The voice is also seen in Genesis 3:8, “And they heard the voice of the LORD God walking in the garden in the cool of the day: and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the LORD God amongst the trees of the garden.”

As you see, “all three of them” is displayed in these verses: Jesus, the Holy Spirit and the Father (the Voice). So how you didn’t see that? Only God knows! But I say, because your spiritual blindness.

You said:

Also a third script is used:

Mat 28:19 Go ye therefore, and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them into the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit:

Actually there are some comments on this verse:

1.     The script doesn’t say that the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost are one, all what it said is baptize them in the name of the 3 of them, saying name not names doesn’t mean that the 3 are one. When a leader tells his soldiers: “fight your enemies in the name of the country the people and the king” doesn’t mean that the 3 are one, this is the same case for 1 Peter 1:1-2. Otherwise, if we used the same way, we can have another Trinity from the Bible: 1Ti 5:21 I charge thee in the sight of God, and Christ Jesus, and the elect angels, that thou observe these things without prejudice, doing nothing by partiality.

My answer:

Believe what you want but this is another display of the Trinity. How can Jesus, if He was a mere creature, put Himself in the same status as God?

In fact, when the disciples baptized people they did not say, “in the Name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit”. They only said “In the name of Jesus”, meaning that these three responds to the name of Jesus. This is why Jesus said:

John 10:30, I and the Father are one.

The Jews wanted to stone Him:

John 10:31, “Therefore Jews took up stones again to stone him.”

Why?

John 10:32 Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from my Father. For which of those works do you stone me?”

Because

John 10:33 The Jews answered him, “We don’t stone you for a good work, BUT FOR BLASHEMY: because you, BEING A MAN, MAKE YOURSELF GOD.”

These passages clearly show that Jesus claimed to be God, and He is not the Father, thus we already see the display of two of the Persons of Godhead here.

John 14:8-9,

Philip said to him, “Lord, show us the Father, and that will be enough for us.” Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you such a long time, and do you not know me, Philip? He who HAS SEEN ME HAS SEEN THE FATHER. How do you say, ‘Show us the Father?’  

How can a mere creature say that anyone who has seen him has seen God? It’s either Jesus was a blasphemer as the Jews thought, or He is God, Period!

This is why Hebrews 1:3 calls Him the express image of God; and Colossians 2:9 says all the fullness of Godhead dwells in Him bodily.

You said:

2.     The apostles didn’t respond to what Jesus ordered them in this verse, since the baptizmal formula was never told that way by the apostles, but they were always baptizing people in the name of Jesus, and they were baptizing the Jews only not the gentiles, only Paul and Baranabas (who were not present there) baptized the gentiles.

My answer:

__Wow, I don’t believe that you just admit that Jesus is God. Who would baptize people to a mere creature’s name if Jesus was not God? Wow again. Why are you denying the Deity of Christ actually?

You said:

A main fourth verse is the Johanine comma:

1Jo 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

Actually, this verse was omitted from most translations, and most Christians agree on it being added to the Bible, look for example at what Albert Barnes says in his commentary:

“The reasons which seem to me to prove that the passage included in brackets is spurious, and should not be regarded as a part of the inspired writings, are briefly the following:

I. It is missing in all the earlier Greek manuscripts, for it is found in no Greek manuscript written before the 16th century. Indeed, it is found in only two Greek manuscripts of any age – one the Codex Montfortianus, or Britannicus, written in the beginning of the sixteenth century, and the other the Codex Ravianus, which is a mere transcript of the text, taken partly from the third edition of Stephen’s New Testament, and partly from the Complutensian Polyglott. But it is incredible that a genuine passage of the New Testament should be missing in all the early Greek manuscripts.

II. It is missing in the earliest versions, and, indeed, in a large part of the versions of the New Testament which have been made in all former times. It is wanting in both the Syriac versions – one of which was made probably in the first century; in the Coptic, Armenian, Slavonic, Ethiopic, and Arabic.

III. It is never quoted by the Greek fathers in their controversies on the doctrine of the Trinity – a passage which would be so much in point, and which could not have failed to be quoted if it were genuine; and it is not referred to by the Latin fathers until the time of Vigilius, at the end of the 5th century. If the passage were believed to be genuine – nay, if it were known at all to be in existence, and to have any probability in its favor – it is incredible that in all the controversies which occurred in regard to the divine nature, and in all the efforts to define the doctrine of the Trinity, this passage should never have been referred to. But it never was; for it must be plain to anyone who examines the subject with an unbiassed mind, that the passages which are relied on to prove that it was quoted by Athanasius, Cyprian, Augustin, etc., (Wetstein, II., p. 725) are not taken from this place, and are not such as they would have made if they had been acquainted with this passage, and had designed to quote it. IV. The argument against the passage from the external proof is confirmed by internal evidence, which makes it morally certain that it cannot be genuine.”

My answer:

Well, the problem here is with “the King James” version of the Bible, not the Bible itself (unless you can prove this to all other English version) as you yourself pointed out (Actually, this verse was omitted from most translations, and most Christians agree on it being added to the Bible). This still does not change the fact that the Bible teaches the doctrine of the Trinity though. If you want to know why the King James Version translates 1John 5:7 the way they did, then read these articles(1) and (2).

However, even this very chapter 5 of 1John teaches the doctrine of the Holy Trinity. Let’s take verse 7 out of the equation just to please you and let’s only see few verses before and after verse 7:

This is he that came by water and blood, even Jesus Christ; not by water only, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth…
And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.
If we receive the witness of men, the witness of God is greater: for this is the witness of God (the Father) which he (the Father) hath testified of his Son. – 1John 5:6, 8-9 King James Version

As we see, verse 6, 8-9 show us the three persons of Godhead: the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. So even the very verse you try to discredit is surrounded by the very teaching you try to deny.

You said:

Actually his note concerning this is very extansive, and I preferred to transmit a part of it, so as not to have a very long article.

What we can conclude is that there was no solid ground for the belief in Trinity, all the verses used are not that serious, and doesn’t give the real description for the Trinitarian belief, but they can have many meanings, which doesn’t match with a belief that is supposed to be the basic belief, and other scripts were inserted to the Bible to try to get an evidence for that belief, which proves that this was a major problem that faced Christians for centuries.

My answer:

What I can conclude is that, read the explanation of why King James translates 1John 5:7 by clicking the link I gave you above, and even if we have to omit the whole book of 1 John to prove that the doctrine of the Holy Trinity is biblical, we still can prove it. Lastly, your assertions about the Trinity have just been proven wrong!

Come to Jesus, He died for your sins.